03-19-2024, 05:26 PM
@Jaska
Do linguists have any (rough) idea when the process of satemization occurred in the languages concerned ?
Most (all?) satem-language cultures seem to be either R1a dominant or deriving from the arrival of R1a groups. CWC was essentially an R1a culture. If we could posit that CWC was already a satem culture or in the process of palatalizing its own version of PIE, then that would strike off one option for the emergence of Germanic.
I1 being an unlikely source, it would leave U106 as the most probable vector.
I am aware that we are dealing with time depths that leave us little chance to know for sure. But asking doesn't hurt...
Do linguists have any (rough) idea when the process of satemization occurred in the languages concerned ?
Most (all?) satem-language cultures seem to be either R1a dominant or deriving from the arrival of R1a groups. CWC was essentially an R1a culture. If we could posit that CWC was already a satem culture or in the process of palatalizing its own version of PIE, then that would strike off one option for the emergence of Germanic.
I1 being an unlikely source, it would leave U106 as the most probable vector.
I am aware that we are dealing with time depths that leave us little chance to know for sure. But asking doesn't hurt...
Immi uiros rios toutias rias