Clearly there is something wrong with the method itself, if the datings for all Indo-European branches are too early compared to concrete archaeo-linguistic chronological evidence.
RCO:
I have difficulties understanding what do you want to say here. There is no evidence to derive Indo-Iranian directly from the west. Sintashta Culture in Southern Trans-Urals is every day more strongly connected to Late Proto-Indo-Iranian - here are two new articles confirming this archaeo-linguistic model:
Lubotsky, Alexander 2023: Indo-European and Indo-Iranian Wagon Terminology and the Date of the Indo-Iranian Split.
https://www.academia.edu/106978888/Indo_...nian_Split
Epimakhov, Andrey & Lubotsky, Alexander 2023: Fire and Water : The Bronze Age of the Southern Urals and the Rigveda
https://www.academia.edu/106979217/Fire_...Epimakhov_
Even if there were ten successive migrations from Caucasus to Central-South Asia, none of them can be connected to Indo-Iranian languages, if they do not agree with the linguistic results. This is the only scientific way for multidisciplinary comparison: we take the linguistic results, and then we look if there is a match concerning time, place, and direction of expansion. If there is not, then that migration (or cultural expansion) is not a match for that linguistic expansion. All ten migrations are then associated with some other languages than Indo-Iranian. We must remember that before the expansion of the extant languages, there were tens or hundreds of other languages, which later became extinct.
RCO:
Quote:"The big genetic question was the formation of a completely new admixed population in the steppe made of two different Mesolithic/Neolithic/Eneolithic sources - CHG-IRAN + EHG, not populations with minor different proportions in the same components like in Western Europe, but all recent mainstream papers are revealing that the Anatolian languages and the Eastern Wing of the Southern Arc in the Caucasus, Eastern Anatolia, Northern Iran, Northern Mesopotamia were the first early Proto-Indo-European populations derived from the Ancient Iranians with the first complex agricultural civilizations in the South and they took to the North and brought the CHG-IRAN component to the steppe and Western Europe."
I have difficulties understanding what do you want to say here. There is no evidence to derive Indo-Iranian directly from the west. Sintashta Culture in Southern Trans-Urals is every day more strongly connected to Late Proto-Indo-Iranian - here are two new articles confirming this archaeo-linguistic model:
Lubotsky, Alexander 2023: Indo-European and Indo-Iranian Wagon Terminology and the Date of the Indo-Iranian Split.
https://www.academia.edu/106978888/Indo_...nian_Split
Epimakhov, Andrey & Lubotsky, Alexander 2023: Fire and Water : The Bronze Age of the Southern Urals and the Rigveda
https://www.academia.edu/106979217/Fire_...Epimakhov_
Even if there were ten successive migrations from Caucasus to Central-South Asia, none of them can be connected to Indo-Iranian languages, if they do not agree with the linguistic results. This is the only scientific way for multidisciplinary comparison: we take the linguistic results, and then we look if there is a match concerning time, place, and direction of expansion. If there is not, then that migration (or cultural expansion) is not a match for that linguistic expansion. All ten migrations are then associated with some other languages than Indo-Iranian. We must remember that before the expansion of the extant languages, there were tens or hundreds of other languages, which later became extinct.
~ Per aspera ad hominem ~
Y-DNA: N-Z1936 >> CTS8565 >> BY22114 (Savonian)
mtDNA: H5a1e (Northern Fennoscandian)